I woke up this morning with the passage running through my mind, over and over again:
The veil of the TEMPLE, the veil of the TEMPLE, the veil of the TEMPLE (Matthew 27:51, Mark 15:38, Luke 23:45).
Luke 23:45 And the sun was darkened, and the veil of the temple was rent in the midst.
Luke substantiates that there was darkness at that time. At least no error there! I had not sufficiently researched whether the Court of the Gentiles would have been considered part of the temple. What I should have done was look up the word and verify prior to posting. My apologies for any confusion, error or lack of clarity.
Temple - G3485 - From a primary word ναίω naiō (to dwell); a fane, shrine, temple: - shrine, temple. Compare G2411.
G2411 - Neuter of G2413; a sacred place, that is, the entire precincts (whereas G3485 denotes the central sanctuary itself) of the Temple (at Jerusalem or elsewhere).
Thus it would appear that the temple in Matthew and Mark would have been considered the central sanctuary. :-)
I reviewed Matthew Poole's commentary on Matthew 27:51 and thought it worth sharing. **sigh** Thought I had found an online version of Poole and would be able to copy and paste. I am quoting him in the midst of his commentary on verses 51-53 of Matthew 27. Specifically the part about the vail:
"Besides these, the veil of the temple was rent: three of the evangelists mention it. It is not much material whether this were the outward veil, or the inward veil, or hangings, which parted the most holy place from the other part of the temple, though probably it was the inner veil. By this rending of the veil God testified his wrath against the Jews, and that He was leaving His temple amongst them. The veil was a type of Christ's flesh, Hex 10:20: the anti type being rent, it was reasonable that the type should also be so. By this also was showed, that the temple service was now at an end, and to continue no longer, and the partition wall betwixt Jew and Gentile was pulled down."
Amen
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